武珞路2024-2025学年度上学期期中素养调研
七年级 英语试卷
(考试时间为120分钟，满分为120分)
第ⅰ卷 (选择题 共 80 分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节，满分25分)
第一节 (共4 小题，每小题1分，满分4分)
听下面 4 个问题，每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的 a、b、c 三个选项中选出最佳选项。 听完每个问题后，你都有 5 秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍
1. a. my name is ella. b. i’m fine, thank you. c. nice to meet you too.
2. a. it’s an orange. b. it’s orange. c. a key.
3. a. they are my parents. b. they are my books. c. he is my brother.
4. a. it’s sally’s. b. that’s a pen. c. no, they aren’t.
第二节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面 8 段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 a、b、c 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。
5. when does the conversation happen (发生)
a. in the morning. b. in the afternoon c. in the evening.
6. how old is sally
a. 11. b. 12. c. 13.
7. what class is the boy in
a. class 3. b. class 2. c. class 1.
8. how many rabbits does the woman have
a. three. b. five. c. eight.
9. what will john do after class)
a. play tennis. b. read books. c. play the guitar.
10. what is the girl’s favorite food
a. beijing roast duck. b. mapo tofu. c. hot pot.
11. what will the girl probably (可能) say next
a. sorry. b. you’re welcome. c. thank you.
12. which picture shows peter’s hobby
a. b. c.
第三节 (共13小题，每小题1 分，满分13分)
听下面 4 段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 a、b、c 三个选项中选 出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟，听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答 13 至 15三个小题。
13. what is the boy’s family name
a. peter b. brown c. miller
14. where is the boy from
a. england b. america c. australia
15. what class are they in
a. class 1, grade 7 b. class 7, grade 1 c. class 2, grade 7
听下面一段对话，回答 16 至 18 三个小题。
16. where are probably (可能) the two speakers
a. at home. b. at school. c. in the park.
17. who plays ping-pong with teng fei every week
a. his father. b. his grandpa. c. his mother.
18. what are the two speakers talking about
a. emma’s family.
b. teng fei’s family photo.
c. teng fei’s families’ things and hobbies.
听下面一段对话，回答19至22四个小题。
19. what’s the relationship (关系) between the two speakers
a. mum and son. b. father and daughter. c. teacher and student.
20. where is the key
a. under the desk. b. on the chair. c. in the box.
21. what may jack do next
a. go to clean his room. b. put the glasses on the desk. c. put his basketball in the box.
22. what can we learn from the conversation
a. jack’s room is very tidy. b. jack has a new pair of glasses. c. jack puts things everywhere.
听下面一段独白，回答 23 至 23三个小题。
23 where are mike’s two friends from
a. china. b. australia. c. the uk.
24. what’s mike’s favorite sport
a. baseball. b. basketball. c. ping-pong.
25. what can we know from the passage (文章)
a. mike starts a music band
b. the twins’ parents have a team
c. they can feed (喂养) the animal on the farm.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择题 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
从题中所给的 a、b、c、d 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
26. how many syllables are there in the word “guitar”
a. one b. two c. three d. four
27. which is pronounced differently from the others
a. band b. hat c. bat d. grade
28. — ____________. meimei and peter in the same class
—____________. they are both in class 4.
a. is; yes, they are b. are; yes, they are
c. is; no, they aren’t d. art; no, they aren’t
29. —____________ is the cat i can’t see it.
—she is just sleeping under the chair!
a. who b. what c. whose d. where
30. —____________ caps are these
—they are my ____________. they like wearing caps.
a. who; grandparents b. whose; grandparents
c. who; grandparents’ d. whose; grandparent’s
31. —which of the bottle do you want. the brown or the blue
—well, i don’t know. ____________ of them look nice!
a. some b. any c. both d. all
32. —shall we call tim and say sorry to him
—why not it’s our ____________.
a. key b. thing c. fun d. mistake
33. —your things are everywhere, fred!
—sorry, mum! i’ll ____________ them up in a minute.
a. circle b. spell c. tidy d. count
34. —these apples taste good. where are they from
—they are from my aunt’s farm. they are of the highest ____________.
a. family b. nice c. grade d. full
35. —another cup of tea, ella
—no. thanks. ____________ the time! we’ll be late!
a. call up b. look at c. come in d. look for
三、完形填空。 (分a、b两部分，共15个选项，每个选项1分，满分15分)
阅读下面a、b两篇短文，从短文后所给的a、b、c、d四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
a
i have a brother and sister. my brother is tall, and he has short hair. he is really funny, and he often makes 36 laugh. my sister looks very 37 . she is short, and she has long brown hair. she is a quiet girl. she really likes 38 . i’m not tall or short. i don’t talk or read much. but i play the violin really 39 . i 40 like playing tennis. we are all different, but we have a lot of fun together.
36. a. we b. our c. us d. i
37. a. same b. different c. happy d. little
38. a. dancing b. singing c. talking d. reading
39. a. good b. best c. well d. fine
40. a. also b. very c. really d. too
b
hello! my name is tony. i am a happy 41 . i am from a big family. my 42 have six kids. and i love playing with my 43 brothers and three sisters. but later, i become a street dog (流浪狗).
one day, a girl named sally takes me home. there, i 44 two other dogs, paul and max. we get to know and 45 with each other. friends mean a lot to everyone. sally loves us very much. we often do all kinds of 46 together like walking, swimming and playing ball games. if the weather’s fine, we’ll go 47 to the forest. we can always have much fun!
sally also take photos of us. here are two nice ones let’s have a look. in the 48 photo, paul, max and i swim in the water. we’re all 49 swimmers. in the next photo, i play a ball with my friends on the grass.
thanks to sally, i have a happy 50 again! and now i start a new life.
41. a. bird b. kid c. dog d. cat
42. a. uncles b. grandparents c. aunts d. parents
43. a. two b. three. c. four d. six
44. a. say b. meet c. speak d. talk
45. a. play sports b. go swimming c. have fun d. make friends
46. a. grades b. hobbies c. classes d. sports
47. a. shopping b. fishing c. hiking d. swimming
48. a. one b. first c. middle d. last
49. a. good b. well c. long d. old
50. a. day b. name c. school d. family
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列三篇材料，从每题所给的a、b、c、d四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
hi! my name is cindy brown i have a friend in china. we both like basketball and baseball and i have two basketballs and one baseball. look at my family tree. my family all love sport very much. they like soccer, ping-pong, swimming and running.
51. how many children do cindy’ grandparents have
a. one. b. two. c. three. d. four.
52. who is cindy’s uncle
a. eric. b. cindy. c. sam. d. bob.
53. what kind of sport does cindy’s aunt love
① swimming ②soccer ③ping-pong ④running
a. ①④ b. ①③ c. ③④ d. ②④
54. which is most popular (最受欢迎的) sport in cindy’s family
a. running. b. swimming. c. ping-pong. d. soccer.
55. what can we learn from the passage and pictures
a. bob is jack’s brother.
b. cindy has no cousin.
c. cindy’s friend’s favourite sport is basketball.
d. cindy’s grandparents both like ping-pong.
b
pan zhanle is a chinese swimmer. he is from zhejiang, china. this year, he is 20 years old. he loves swimming very much and is really good at swimming. he spends a lot of time on it every day. he joins in many competitions (比赛) and wins some medals (奖牌). the most important one is the gold medal from the paris olympics (巴黎奥运会) this summer. it takes a lot of training.
his good performances (表现) make people like him. it is an exciting time for pan zhanle in the paris olympics. he takes part in the men’s 100m freestyle event (100 米自由泳项目). he swims very fast. people from many countries watch him carefully. in the end, he wins the first place! he becomes the champion!
pan says the swimming pool teaches him not to give up. he always keeps working hard. so many students want to be like him. his performances also show the world “chinese speed”. we believe he will do better in the future.
56. what does “it” in paragraph 1 refer to (指代)
a. swimmer b. china c. swimming d. show.
57. the word “champion” in the passage means ____________.
a. 胜利者 b. 失败者 c. 参与者 d. 旁观者
58. why do many students want to be like pan zhanle
a. because he is tall. b. because he is handsome.
c. because he wins the gold medal. d. because he doesn’t give up
59. from the passage, we can know pan zhanle ____________.
a. is 18 years old
b. is from jiangsu
c. wins the gold medal in the tokyo olympics
d. spends much time swimming
60. which of the following is the best title for the passage
a. the favorite swimmer b. the paris olympics
c. chinese speed in the pool—pan zhanie d. pan’s favorite sport
c
“black myth: wukong” (《黑神话：悟空》) is a cool game. it comes from the book journey to the west (《西游记》). the pictures are beautiful, and the story is interesting.
in the game, players can have fun being sun wukong. they can do many exciting things in the game. for example, they can go to different places and meet different people. if players want to win the game, they can use wukong’s magics (魔法) and skills, like 72 changes. it’s like the stories in the book. ★ so many players from different countries also know sun wukong is very strong.
a chinese team makes the game all by themselves. the team hopes to bring chinese stories to the world. the game really brings the story of sun wukong to life. players know more about the book journey to the west. they also want to show the beauty of our country. and pictures are about some real (真实的) places in shanxi, china. players can see these beautiful places in the game. the team says it’s difficult to make the game, but they try their best.
61. “black myth: wukong” is a ____________.
a. book b. movie c. story d. game
62. what question does paragraph 2 mainly (主要的) answer
a. why is the game welcome b. what can players do in the game
c. when can we play the game d. what can sun wukong do
63. which of the following can be put in ★
a. chinese people want to play the game. b. people don’t like the game.
c. the game is also welcome in the world. d. we can only find the game in china
64. the team makes the game because they want to ____________.
a. tell us some great chinese stories
b. show us some beautiful places
c. make a lot of money by themselves.
d. help the world know more about chinese stories and china
65. what would the writer talk about next
a. games from different countries. b. real places in shanxi.
c. the difficulties in making the game. d. another story from journey to the west.
第ⅱ卷 (非选择题 共40 分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使短文在结构、语意和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的。)
i’m hu xiao. this is my family photo here’s my dad. he’s ____________ (66) and funny. my dad’s favorite sport is ____________ (67). he plays it every week. next to him is my mum. she’s ____________ (68) and kind. she likes to go hiking. the tall girl is me. i’m always happy, and i love animals. this is my little brother, hu rui. he ____________ (69) big eyes. he’s very clever, and he likes reading ____________ (70). we love and help each other.
六、综合填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据所给首字母、上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词，每个空只能填一个词。 (请在答题卡上填写出完整单词)
calling all wizards (巫师) and witches (女巫)! all eight harry potter ____________ (71) (film) are coming back to cinemas across the country.
when the book harry potter “comes” to screen (荧幕), the film is a big success, just like the book. ____________ (72) film-lovers and readers love this magic world. and it is just the ____________ (73) (begin).
you know the three good ____________ (74) (friend). hermione is smart, and ron ____________ (75) (make) people laugh and harry shows us how to be strong. they face (面对) everything ____________ (76) their friends. there are many difficult things, ____________ (77) they never give up. they are like ____________ (78) (we) friends. we watch ____________ (79) (they) grow; we laugh, cry and cheer (欢呼) for them. they teach us that love and friendship ____________ (80) (be) the best magic.
now once again, let’s stop by platform (站台) 9 and take the train to hogwarts. it’s time to ride a broom (扫帚), learn spells (咒语), and enjoy the adventure that never truly (真正) ends!
七、书面表达 (共1大题，满分20分)
一位美国交换生 peter 即将来武汉学习，假如你是 teng fei，请你作为寄宿家庭的小主人介绍一下你家庭的基本情祝，如介绍家庭成员和你的个人爱好等，希望能与peter成为好朋友提示问题：
1. how many people are there in your family
2. who are they
3. what do they often do in their free time
4. something about yourself.
注意：
1. 文中不得透露个人姓名和学校名称；
2. 词数：60-80
3. 开头已给出，不计人总词数。
dear peter,
glad to hear that you will study and live with us in wuhan. welcome to my house!
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武珞路2024-2025学年度上学期期中素养调研
七年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力部分 (每小题1分，共25分)
1-5 cbaab 6-10 baccb 11-15 cbbaa 16-20 abсaa 21-25 ccaac
二、选择填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
26-30 bdbdb 31-35 cdccb
三、完形填空 (本题共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
36-40 cbdca 41-45 cdabd 46-50 dcbad
四、阅读理解 (本题共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
51-55 bcaad 56-60 caddc 61-65 dbcdc
五、词与短语填空 (本题共5小题，每小题2分，本题共10分)
66. handsome 67. playing football 68. beautiful 69. has 70. a lot
六、综合填空 (本题共10小题，每小题1分，本题共10分)
71. films 72. both 73. beginning 74. friends 75. makes
76. with 77. but 78. our 79. them 80. are
七、书面表达 (本题共1小题，满分20分)
dear peter,
glad to hear that you will study and live with us in wuhan. welcome to my house! there are four people in my family: my parents, my younger sister, and me. my father works as an engineer, and he loves fixing things around the house. my mother is a teacher, and she enjoys gardening and cooking delicious meals. my sister is a high school student who loves playing the piano and dancing. as for me, i am a middle school student passionate about basketball and reading science fiction.
in our free time, we often watch movies together, go on family outings, or play board games. i hope we can do some of these activities together and become good friends!
looking forward to meeting you soon.
best regards,
teng fei
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